Recently, when leaving to visit a family member in a distant city, I forgot to take coffee beans from my usual local roaster. We bought a pound of coffee beans from a coffee shop where we had enjoyed drinking good coffee.
The first morning, the person I was staying with brewed the coffee and it was quite bitter. I found that she was brewing at a much higher water to coffee ratio, less ground coffee per ounce of water, than I use. The next morning, I brewed the coffee using my usual ratio, 16 to 1, and the coffee was bitter again. Not as bitter as the first day, but still bitter. Within a couple of days, a bag of coffee from my roaster at home arrived and life was good again.
The problem definitely seemed to be the beans. That was the only difference I could identify between the bad coffee and good coffee. Can beans be inherently bitter?
The first morning, the person I was staying with brewed the coffee and it was quite bitter. I found that she was brewing at a much higher water to coffee ratio, less ground coffee per ounce of water, than I use. The next morning, I brewed the coffee using my usual ratio, 16 to 1, and the coffee was bitter again. Not as bitter as the first day, but still bitter. Within a couple of days, a bag of coffee from my roaster at home arrived and life was good again.
The problem definitely seemed to be the beans. That was the only difference I could identify between the bad coffee and good coffee. Can beans be inherently bitter?